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Patient care is the highest-stakes section for clinical judgment. Expect questions on preprocedural assessment, contrast reactions, anticoagulation, pharmacology, and emergency management. Know the why — not just drug names and doses.
This section tests clinical decision-making in real IR scenarios. The exam loves questions where you must choose between similar drugs, recognize when a patient is deteriorating, or know which lab value to check before starting a procedure. Rote memorization fails here — pattern recognition wins.
| Risk Level | Example Procedures | INR | Platelets |
|---|---|---|---|
| Low | PICC, IVC filter, paracentesis, thoracentesis, dialysis access, superficial biopsy, drain exchange | <2.0 | >50,000/μL |
| Moderate | Arterial ≤7Fr, embolization, tunneled catheter, port, liver biopsy, abscess drainage, lung biopsy, spine | <1.5 | >50,000/μL |
| High | TIPS, PTBD/nephrostomy (new), percutaneous renal biopsy | <1.5 | >50,000/μL |
Key rule: Paracentesis and thoracentesis = LOW risk. No INR correction required. This is a common exam trap.
| Severity | Key Signs | Treatment |
|---|---|---|
| Mild | Limited urticaria, flushing, nausea, single vomit | Observe; diphenhydramine 25–50mg PO/IM PRN |
| Moderate | Diffuse urticaria, mild bronchospasm, mild hypotension | O&sub2;, IV fluids; diphenhydramine IV; epi if progressing |
| Anaphylaxis | Bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, BP collapse, HR ↑ | Epinephrine FIRST — 0.3mg IM (1:1,000) lateral thigh |
| Vasovagal | Hypotension + bradycardia, diaphoresis, pallor | Atropine 0.6–1mg IV; elevate legs; fluids |
Prior reaction risk multiplier: ~5× increased risk (NOT 10×) — ACR 2024. Premedication protocol: methylprednisolone 32mg PO at 12h and 2h before contrast.
| Drug | Class/Use | Key Exam Fact |
|---|---|---|
| Heparin (UFH) | Anticoagulant | Reversed by protamine; monitor with aPTT or ACT |
| Alteplase (tPA) | Thrombolytic (CDT) | 0.5–1 mg/hr intra-catheter; ABS CI: stroke <2 months |
| Epinephrine | Vasopressor/anaphylaxis | 0.3mg IM (1:1,000) — FIRST drug in anaphylaxis |
| Atropine | Anticholinergic/vasovagal | 0.6–1mg IV — bradycardia/vasovagal; not for anaphylaxis |
| Midazolam | Benzo/sedation | Reversed by flumazenil; respiratory depression risk |
| Fentanyl | Opioid/analgesia | Reversed by naloxone; shorter acting than morphine |
| Nitroglycerin | Vasodilator | 100–200μg intra-arterial for vasospasm |
| Vasopressin | Vasoconstrictor | 0.2–0.4 units/min intra-arterial for GI bleed embolization |
Patient develops BP 70/40, HR 130, diffuse hives, and audible wheeze 90 seconds after contrast injection. First action?
Epinephrine 0.3mg IM (1:1,000) to lateral thigh — immediately. This is anaphylaxis. Tachycardia distinguishes it from vasovagal.
INR is 1.8 day-of-procedure for a scheduled paracentesis. Procedure coordinator asks if you should delay. Your answer?
Proceed. Paracentesis is LOW bleeding risk. No INR threshold applies. Delaying is incorrect.
Patient on dabigatran needs emergent TIPS for variceal bleed. How do you reverse anticoagulation?
Idarucizumab (Praxbind) — the specific reversal agent for dabigatran. 4F-PCC is for warfarin.
BP drops to 85/50, HR slows to 48, patient becomes pale and diaphoretic mid-procedure (no contrast given). What is this and how do you treat it?
Vasovagal reaction. Bradycardia is the key. Atropine 0.6–1mg IV + leg elevation + fluids. NOT epinephrine.
| Type | When Used | Key Rules |
|---|---|---|
| Informed (written) | All elective procedures | Must be obtained before sedation; patient must understand risks, benefits, alternatives, right to refuse |
| Verbal | Minor additions mid-procedure | Must be documented in medical record immediately |
| Emergent (implied) | Incapacitated patient, life-threatening emergency | Legal presumption reasonable person would consent; document clinical status + absence of surrogate; contact family ASAP |
| Intake | Minimum Hold Before Procedure |
|---|---|
| Clear liquids | 2 hours |
| Breast milk | 4 hours |
| Light meal / nonhuman milk | 6 hours |
| Full meal / fatty food | 8 hours |
| Rhythm | Recognition | Action |
|---|---|---|
| Normal sinus | Regular 60–100 bpm, P before every QRS | Continue |
| Sinus bradycardia | Rate <60, otherwise normal | Atropine if symptomatic (BP drop, altered MS) |
| Sinus tachycardia | Rate >100, P waves present | Assess cause: pain, anxiety, hypovolemia, contrast reaction |
| PVCs | Wide bizarre QRS, no preceding P wave | Occasional = normal; frequent/multifocal → notify physician |
| Atrial fibrillation | Irregularly irregular, no P waves | Notify physician; rate assessment |
| Ventricular tachycardia | Wide QRS >100 bpm, regular | Pulseless → defibrillate; pulsatile → amiodarone |
| Ventricular fibrillation | Chaotic, no organized QRS | Immediate defibrillation + CPR |
| Equipment | Key Monitoring Points | Action if Problem |
|---|---|---|
| IV access | Site patency, no swelling/pain (infiltration) | Stop injection; assess; notify physician if extravasation |
| Drainage bags | Must stay below patient level at all times | Elevated bag → retrograde flow → infection risk |
| Chest tube | Output color/volume, water seal intact, no new air leak | Zero output → check for kink/obstruction; never clamp without order |
| Suction | Yankauer tip at bedside for all sedation cases | Verify functional before starting any sedation procedure |
| Oxygen | SpO&sub2; + EtCO&sub2; together; escalate O&sub2; if SpO&sub2; <92% | SpO&sub2; not improving on cannula → upgrade to non-rebreather mask |
Image production tests your understanding of fluoroscopy physics, radiation safety, DSA technique, and equipment operation. The exam rewards techs who know why dose increases, not just which button to press.
This section has predictable, testable numbers (dose thresholds, scatter geometry, ALARA principles). If you know the 5 Gy Ka,r notification threshold, the 15 Gy tissue injury threshold, and the geometry of scatter radiation — you will answer most questions correctly. DSA artifact causes are also heavily tested.
| Threshold | Value | Action Required | Source |
|---|---|---|---|
| SRDL notification | 5 Gy Ka,r | Notify referring physician; follow-up at 30 & 60 days | NCRP Report 168 |
| TJC Sentinel Event | 15 Gy PSD | Report as sentinel event; skin injury likely | Joint Commission |
| Deterministic threshold | 2 Gy PSD | Temporary erythema possible | NCRP 116 |
| Permanent epilation | 7 Gy PSD | Permanent hair loss possible | NCRP 116 |
| Annual occupational limit | 50 mSv/yr | Whole body; monitored with dosimeter | NCRP 116 |
| Cumulative lifetime limit | 10 mSv × age | Ongoing monitoring | NCRP 116 |
| X-ray Tube Position | Scatter Direction | Implication |
|---|---|---|
| Tube above table (PA) | Scatter goes downward | Safer for staff — scatter away from upper body |
| Tube below table (AP) | Scatter goes upward | More dose to operator face/eyes/thyroid |
| LAO/RAO steep angles | Scatter toward operator side | Step back or use shield during acquisition |
| Issue | Cause | Fix |
|---|---|---|
| Misregistration artifact | Patient movement between mask and fill | Reacquire mask; breath hold coaching |
| Motion blur | High frame rate needed for fast vessels | Increase frames/sec (cardiac DSA) |
| Road mapping error | Patient moved after road map acquired | Re-acquire road map |
| Pixel shifting | Small misregistration; bowel gas movement | Re-mask or reposition |
DSA principle: Mask image (no contrast) is subtracted from live image (with contrast), leaving only the vessel. Any movement between mask and fill = misregistration = artifact.
Cumulative fluoroscopy time reaches 85 minutes in a complex TIPS. Ka,r reads 5.2 Gy. What is your obligation?
Notify the referring physician (SRDL threshold is 5 Gy Ka,r per NCRP 168). Schedule follow-up skin assessment at 30 and 60 days.
During DSA run, the subtracted image shows a ghosting artifact that looks like overlapping vessel outlines. Most likely cause?
Patient movement between mask acquisition and contrast fill = misregistration artifact. Re-acquire the mask.
You switch from 9-inch to 6-inch FOV during a procedure. What happens to the patient’s radiation dose?
Dose increases. Smaller FOV triggers AEC to increase technique (kVp/mA) to maintain image brightness. Counter-intuitive but critical.
Physician asks for saline to use as hydrodissection fluid during renal RFA. Your response?
Decline and provide D5W instead. Saline conducts electrical current and creates a path for thermal/electrical injury. D5W is electrically inert.
| Parameter | Typical Range | Clinical Point |
|---|---|---|
| Flow rate | 2–25 mL/sec | Must match vessel size; too fast → dissection |
| Volume | 5–50 mL | Enough for arterial phase; minimize contrast load |
| Pressure limit | 150–1200 PSI | 5 Fr ≤600 PSI; 4 Fr ≤300 PSI; set per catheter size |
| Rise time | 0.1–0.5 sec | Time to reach target flow; shorter = more abrupt |
| Inspection Type | Frequency | What It Finds |
|---|---|---|
| Visual inspection | Each use | Visible external tears, cracks |
| Fluoroscopic/radiographic | At least annually | Internal lead discontinuities not visible externally |
The largest content area. Vascular diagnostic tests access techniques, catheter selection, anatomy, projections, and IVC anatomy for filter placement. Know your projections cold — they’re tested constantly.
26% of the exam. Master the projections (LAO 45° for aortic arch, lateral for celiac/SMA, LPO for right renal, RPO for left renal), know the Seldinger technique cold, and understand IVC anatomy variants. Femoral access details and catheter selection are tested heavily.
| Vessel/Study | Best Projection | Why |
|---|---|---|
| Aortic arch | LAO 45° | Opens arch, shows origins of great vessels |
| Celiac axis | Lateral | Shows origin off aorta without overlap |
| SMA | Lateral | Same as celiac; anterolateral origin |
| Right renal artery | LPO | Opens right renal origin off aorta |
| Left renal artery | RPO | Opens left renal origin off aorta |
| Carotid bifurcation | LAO 45° + cranial | Separates ICA from ECA |
| Renal hilum | Ipsilateral posterior oblique | Shows bifurcation pattern |
| Adrenal vein sampling | Right = technically difficult | Short right adrenal vein drains directly to IVC |
| Variant | Prevalence | Impact on Filter Placement |
|---|---|---|
| Duplicated IVC | <1% | Bilateral iliac filters OR suprarenal single filter |
| Circumaortic left renal vein | 3–4% | Must image both limbs; filter above highest LRV |
| Retroaortic left renal vein | 2–3% | Filter below LRV insertion to avoid thrombosis |
| Left-sided IVC | <0.5% | Crosses midline; access may require repositioning |
Standard filter position: Infrarenal IVC just below the lowest renal vein. Suprarenal placement only when infrarenal is not possible (e.g., thrombus up to renals, pregnancy, duplicated IVC).
| Catheter | Shape/Use | Key Application |
|---|---|---|
| Cobra (C2) | Simple curve | Celiac, SMA, renal arteries from femoral |
| Simmons (SIM) | Reverse curve | Difficult arch anatomy; subclavian, carotid from femoral |
| Headhunter (H1) | Angled tip | Great vessel selection from femoral approach |
| Pigtail | Curled tip, multiple side holes | Aortogram, ventriculogram (high flow) |
| Bernstein | Slight angle | Selective vessel catheterization, brachial approach |
| Kumpe | Angled tip | Selective catheterization, drainage |
Cavagram before IVC filter placement shows two IVC channels from L4 to the confluence. What are your filter options?
Duplicated IVC (<1% prevalence). Options: bilateral common iliac filters OR single suprarenal filter above the duplication.
Physician asks for best projection to visualize the celiac axis takeoff during an aortogram. What do you set up?
Lateral projection. The celiac and SMA originate from the anterior aorta — lateral view shows these origins without vessel overlap.
Post-femoral arterial puncture, patient has a pulsatile groin mass with a bruit. What complication and what diagnostic test?
Pseudoaneurysm. Diagnose with duplex ultrasound. Treat with ultrasound-guided compression or thrombin injection.
During right renal arteriogram, the origin of the right renal artery is not well visualized in AP. What projection do you try?
LPO (left posterior oblique). This rotates the aorta to open the right renal artery origin.
Performed for malfunctioning central venous devices: no blood return, poor flow, difficult infusion.
| Finding | Fluoroscopic Appearance | Management |
|---|---|---|
| Fibrin sheath | Contrast outlines outside of catheter and flows back up tract | Alteplase (tPA) dwell: 2 mg in 2 mL, 30–120 min, then aspirate |
| Tip malposition | Tip in IJ, axillary, or azygos vein — not in SVC | Reposition over guidewire |
| Intraluminal thrombus | Filling defect within catheter lumen | tPA dwell; consider exchange if failed |
| Catheter fracture | Contrast leak at fracture site | Remove catheter; foreign body retrieval if fragment embolized |
| Pinch-off syndrome | Catheter kinked at costoclavicular space | Remove before complete fracture and embolization |
| Branch | Level |
|---|---|
| Celiac trunk | T12–L1 |
| Superior mesenteric artery (SMA) | L1 |
| Renal arteries (bilateral) | L1–L2 |
| Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) | L3 |
| Aortic bifurcation → common iliac | L4 |
Hepatic arterial anatomy is highly variable. Every patient undergoing TACE or hepatic embolization requires complete mapping before treatment.
| Variant | Prevalence | Clinical Impact |
|---|---|---|
| Replaced RHA from SMA | 10–15% | Most common variant — absent right hepatic on celiac arteriogram → catheterize SMA |
| Replaced LHA from left gastric | ~10% | Second most common — runs in lesser omentum → superselect left gastric |
| Accessory RHA from SMA | ~7% | Additional right hepatic supply alongside normal RHA — both must be embolized |
| Michels Type IX (replaced CHA from SMA) | Rare | Entire liver supplied by SMA — no hepatic branches visible on celiac arteriogram |
| Normal (Type I) | ~55% | Celiac gives off all three vessels; standard hepatic supply |
| Structure | Left Side | Right Side |
|---|---|---|
| Renal vein length | Longer — crosses anterior to aorta | Short — drains directly into IVC |
| Tributaries | Left gonadal + left adrenal + left phrenic | None — right gonadal and adrenal drain directly into IVC |
| Adrenal vein | Drains into left renal vein | Drains directly into right IVC posterolateral wall (3–5mm) — most challenging AVS catheterization |
| Gonadal vein | Left gonadal → left renal vein (varicocele/PCS embolization via left renal vein) | Right gonadal → directly into IVC |
Left vertebral artery arises directly from arch in ~6% (between left CCA and left subclavian).
| Vessel | Location / Course | Key Clinical Point |
|---|---|---|
| Common femoral artery (CFA) | Overlies medial third of femoral head | Standard access site; target puncture over femoral head for hemostasis |
| Profunda femoris | Arises from CFA 3–5cm below inguinal ligament | Collateral source in SFA occlusion; not a target for angioplasty |
| Superficial femoral artery (SFA) | Passes through adductor (Hunter's) canal | Most common site of PAD; transitions to popliteal at adductor hiatus |
| Popliteal artery | Posterior to knee in popliteal fossa | Divides at lower popliteal fossa into AT and tibioperoneal trunk |
| Anterior tibial artery | Passes through interosseous membrane anteriorly | Continues as dorsalis pedis at foot |
| Tibioperoneal trunk | Short segment after AT takeoff | Divides into posterior tibial (medial) and peroneal (lateral/fibular) |
| Posterior tibial artery | Medial calf behind medial malleolus | Supplies plantar foot; palpable posterior to medial malleolus |
| Peroneal artery | Lateral compartment alongside fibula | Often last patent vessel in critical limb ischemia — may be only outflow |
The ARRT® spec includes “Closure Devices, Puncture Site Pressure, and Dressing” in the Focus of Questions for Vascular Diagnostic procedures. These are tested alongside access techniques.
The most procedure-heavy section. TIPS, IVC filters, embolization, CDT, Y-90, and ablation. Know your PSG targets, embolization agent properties, and CDT contraindications cold.
This section rewards techs who understand procedure rationale, not just steps. Know why TIPS targets PSG <12 mmHg, why Gelfoam is temporary, why D5W is used for RFA, and why MWA has no heat-sink effect. These are the distinctions that separate passing from failing.
| Parameter | Value | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| PSG target (all indications) | <12 mmHg | AASLD 2021; applies to varices AND refractory ascites |
| Optimal PSG | <8–10 mmHg | Better variceal bleed control |
| Standard stent | VIATORR (ePTFE-covered) | Reduces pseudointimal hyperplasia vs bare metal |
| Most common delayed complication | Hepatic encephalopathy | 25–35% of patients; ammonia elevation |
| Access vein | Right hepatic vein → right portal vein | Most common approach |
| Absolute CI | Severe right heart failure, polycystic liver, uncontrolled sepsis | Relative CI: moderate encephalopathy |
| Agent | Duration | Primary Use | Key Fact |
|---|---|---|---|
| Gelfoam | Temporary (days–weeks) | Trauma, GI bleed, post-partum hemorrhage | Resorbs; vessel recanalizes |
| Coils | Permanent | Aneurysms, AVMs, vessel occlusion | Mechanical occlusion; platinum or stainless |
| PVA particles | Permanent | UAE, tumor embolization | Size selection determines level of occlusion |
| Embospheres | Permanent | UAE, HCC, tumor | Calibrated microspheres; more uniform than PVA |
| Onyx (EVOH) | Permanent | AVM, aneurysm | Liquid agent; requires DMSO-compatible microcatheter |
| n-BCA glue | Permanent | Rapid hemorrhage, AVF | Polymerizes on contact with blood; fast set |
| Ethanol (EtOH) | Permanent | Renal ablation, AVM sclerosis | Cytotoxic; extreme pain — general anesthesia |
| Parameter | Value/Details |
|---|---|
| Isotope | Yttrium-90 (Y-90) — pure beta emitter |
| Pre-procedure imaging | Tc-99m MAA scan (mandatory) — assesses lung shunt fraction |
| Lung shunt CI | >20% lung shunt fraction = contraindication |
| GI shunting concern | Aberrant vessels to bowel = risk of radiation gastroenteritis |
| Main indication | Unresectable HCC, colorectal liver mets |
| Post-embolization syndrome | Fever, nausea, fatigue — expected; manage supportively |
| Feature | RFA (Radiofrequency) | MWA (Microwave) |
|---|---|---|
| Mechanism | Ionic agitation → heat | Water molecule oscillation → heat |
| Heat-sink effect | Yes — vessels >3mm reduce ablation zone | No — not limited by adjacent vessels |
| Hydrodissection fluid | D5W ONLY (electrically inert) | D5W preferred but less critical |
| Speed | Slower | Faster (higher temps achieved) |
| Tumors near vessels | Suboptimal (heat-sink) | Preferred |
Post-TIPS, portal pressure is 18 mmHg and hepatic wedge is 9 mmHg. Is the procedure successful?
PSG = 18 − 9 = 9 mmHg. Yes — this is <12 mmHg. Procedure successful per AASLD criteria.
Pre-Y-90 Tc-99m MAA scan shows 22% lung shunt fraction. What do you do?
Do NOT proceed. Lung shunt >20% is an absolute contraindication to Y-90 radioembolization. Radiation pneumonitis risk is too high.
During RFA of a 3.5cm renal tumor adjacent to the renal vein, ablation zones are consistently smaller than expected. Why?
Heat-sink effect. The adjacent large vessel (renal vein) dissipates heat, reducing the effective ablation zone. Consider MWA instead.
Patient had ischemic stroke 6 weeks ago and now has acute iliofemoral DVT with phlegmasia. Can you perform CDT?
No. Stroke <2 months is an absolute contraindication to CDT. The risk of intracranial hemorrhage is too high.
| Type | Device Example | Mechanism | Key Fact |
|---|---|---|---|
| Directional | SilverHawk, TurboHawk | Rotating cutter shaves plaque; collected in nosecone for removal | Debris removed from body in nosecone |
| Rotational | Rotablator | Diamond burr at high speed; microparticles <7μm pass distally | Debris embolizes distally to lungs |
| Orbital | Diamondback 360 | Eccentric diamond crown; larger zone at higher speed | Bidirectional; one crown size treats multiple vessel diameters |
| Laser (Excimer) | Turbo-Elite | 308 nm UV photons break molecular bonds (no heat) | CTO, in-stent restenosis, thrombus |
No-reflow after rotational atherectomy: treat with intracoronary vasodilators (adenosine, nitroprusside, or verapamil) — NOT stenting.
| Type | Source | Management |
|---|---|---|
| Type I | Seal failure at landing zone (Ia proximal, Ib distal) | Urgent repair — highest rupture risk |
| Type II | Branch vessels (IMA, lumbar) filling sac retrogradely | Observe if sac stable; embolize if sac grows |
| Type III | Graft defect or junction separation | Urgent repair |
| Type IV | Graft porosity (rare with modern grafts) | Usually self-limited |
Adequate biopsy: minimum 6 portal tracts; 11 recommended for reliable fibrosis staging.
| Type | Mechanism | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Filter wire | Micropore basket captures debris distal to lesion; retrieved after stent | SpiderFX, Emboshield NAV6, FilterWire EZ |
| Proximal occlusion | Balloons in ECA + CCA create no-flow field; debris aspirated before restoring flow | Mo.Ma Ultra |
Pinch-off syndrome: port catheter compressed between clavicle and 1st rib → fracture → fragment lodges in RV or PA. Recognized by >90° catheter angle at costoclavicular space on fluoroscopy.
| Feature | IR Suite | Hybrid OR |
|---|---|---|
| Imaging | Fixed angiography system | Same + CBCT, fusion imaging capability |
| Surgical capability | Minor open access only | Full open surgery: anesthesia boom, surgical lighting, instrument tables |
| Team | IR tech, interventionalist, RN | All of above + surgeon, anesthesiologist, scrub tech |
| Key advantage | — | In-room surgical conversion without patient transport |
| Room size | ~480–600 sq ft | ~750–1,100 sq ft |
The ARRT® spec tests angioplasty and stent placement for both neurologic and body locations. Stent type selection is based on vessel location and the need for precise vs. flexible deployment.
| Stent Type | Mechanism | Best For | Examples |
|---|---|---|---|
| Self-expanding (nitinol) | Shape memory — flexes and returns to shape; resists fracture | SFA, popliteal, carotid (long), venous, flexible locations | Zilver PTX, EV3 Protégé, SMART |
| Balloon-expandable (stainless steel) | Plastic deformation by balloon — precise, predictable deployment | Ostial locations: renal artery, iliac ostium, carotid ostium | Express LD, Palmaz, iCast |
| Drug-eluting (paclitaxel) | Paclitaxel coating inhibits smooth muscle proliferation | SFA — reduces restenosis vs. bare nitinol | Zilver PTX (FDA-approved SFA) |
| Covered / PTFE-lined | ePTFE graft on metal scaffold — excludes vessel lumen | AV fistula, endoleak repair, traumatic injury, covered carotid | Viabahn, iCast, Fluency |
The ARRT® spec separates neurologic and body procedures for angioplasty, stent placement, embolization, thrombolysis, and thrombectomy. Know the key differences.
Nonvascular covers the breadth of IR: nephrostomy, biliary drainage, biopsy, spine procedures, and drainage. Know your access points, cement properties, and why urosepsis is the most dangerous nonvascular complication.
The exam tests nephrostomy access anatomy (posterior lower pole calyx), biliary drainage hierarchy, vertebroplasty vs kyphoplasty distinctions, and complication management. Biopsy needle types and yield are also frequently tested. Urosepsis as the #1 life-threatening nonvascular complication appears on almost every exam.
| Complication | Type | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Urosepsis | Most dangerous | Can be fatal; antibiotics BEFORE procedure mandatory |
| Perinephric hematoma | Most common | Usually self-limiting; watch Hgb |
| Pneumothorax | Upper pole access | CXR after any above-12th-rib access |
| Injury to adjacent organs | Colon, spleen | Pre-procedure CT to assess anatomy |
| Feature | Vertebroplasty | Kyphoplasty |
|---|---|---|
| Mechanism | PMMA cement injected directly into fracture | Balloon tamp inserted first → cavity created → cement |
| Height restoration | Minimal to none | Possible (balloon expands before cement) |
| Cement volume | Higher (no cavity) | Lower (fills cavity) |
| Cement leak risk | Higher | Lower (cavity contains cement) |
| Cost | Lower | Higher |
| Indication | Painful osteoporotic VCF, myeloma | Same; preferred when height restoration desired |
PMMA (polymethylmethacrylate) = bone cement used in both procedures. Viscosity matters: too thin → leaks; too thick → won’t flow.
| Type | Needle | Sample | Best For |
|---|---|---|---|
| Fine needle aspiration (FNA) | 20–25G cutting/aspiration | Cytology (cells) | Thyroid, lymph nodes, cysts |
| Core needle biopsy | 14–18G spring-loaded | Histology (tissue architecture) | Liver, lung, renal, soft tissue |
| Coaxial technique | Introducer + inner needle | Multiple samples, one pass | Reduces tract seeding risk |
| Vacuum-assisted | 8–11G rotational | Larger samples | Breast, bone marrow |
Lung biopsy specific: Most common complication = pneumothorax. Occurs in 20–35% but only ~5% require chest tube. Moderate bleeding risk (INR <1.5 required).
During PTBD, patient becomes febrile and hypotensive immediately after bile is aspirated. What is happening and what do you do?
Urosepsis/biliary sepsis from infected bile entry into bloodstream. Broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately, IV fluids, blood cultures, and expedite drainage. This is life-threatening.
During kyphoplasty cement injection, the patient reports sudden new back pain. Fluoroscopy shows cement tracking toward the posterior cortex. What do you do?
Stop injection immediately. Assess for epidural leak. Neurological check. Epidural cement can cause cord compression — this is a surgical emergency if neurological deficits develop.
Nephrolithiasis patient needs nephrostomy drainage above the 11th rib due to anatomy. Post-procedure, patient is dyspneic. First test?
Chest X-ray to rule out pneumothorax. Upper pole/intercostal access carries risk of pneumothorax. May require chest tube if large.
Pathology requests tissue architecture for suspected hepatocellular carcinoma. Which biopsy needle type do you use?
Core needle biopsy (14–18G spring-loaded). FNA provides cytology only — insufficient for tissue architecture/histology required for HCC diagnosis.
| Approach | Best For | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Transforaminal (TFESI) | Unilateral radiculopathy; targeted | Most common in IR; “Scotty dog” oblique view; inject to safe triangle |
| Interlaminar (ILESI) | Central/bilateral symptoms | Broad spread; between laminae |
| Caudal | L5–S1 predominant; prior surgery | Via sacral hiatus |
Ureteral stents (double-J or DJ stents) maintain ureteral patency and allow urine to bypass obstruction. IR performs antegrade placement when retrograde cystoscopic placement fails.
| Complication | Incidence | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Irritative voiding symptoms | Up to 80% | Most common; urgency, frequency, flank pain — bladder trigone irritation |
| Encrustation / obstruction | Increases with time in situ | “Forgotten stent” — exchange every 3–6 months prevents this entirely |
| Migration | Proximal ~0.9%, distal ~0.7% | Proximal → obstruction; distal → bladder symptoms |
| UTI / urosepsis | Significant | Foreign body colonization; antibiotics before any manipulation |
Ureteral dilatation: Balloon dilation (4–8 mm) of ureteral stricture via antegrade approach, followed by stent placement to maintain patency. Most common indication: post-surgical ureteroenteric anastomotic stricture.
IR places chest tubes using ultrasound-guided Seldinger technique with small-bore catheters (8–14 Fr) — equally effective and less painful than large surgical tubes for most indications.
| Parameter | Value / Detail |
|---|---|
| Needle entry rule | OVER the superior margin of the rib below the target space — neurovascular bundle runs in inferior rib groove |
| IR catheter size | 8–14 Fr Seldinger wire-guided (small-bore; less painful, equally effective) |
| Large-bore surgical | 20–32 Fr for frank hemothorax or thick empyema |
| Removal threshold | Output <200 mL/day, serous drainage, minimal residual on imaging |
| Reexpansion limit | 1,500 mL max at one drainage session (same as thoracentesis) |
| Post-procedure | CXR mandatory — confirm position, lung re-expansion |
Percutaneous image-guided abscess drainage is first-line treatment, replacing open surgery in most cases. Success rate >80%. Mortality from untreated abscess: 45–100%.
| Factor | Detail |
|---|---|
| Guidance | US for accessible collections; CT for deep, complex, or gas-containing abscesses |
| Catheter size | 8–14 Fr; larger for thick/viscous collections |
| Daily management | Flush with 10 mL NS every 8 hours; gravity drainage only — never suction |
| Removal criteria | <10–15 mL/day output, afebrile ×24h, WBC normalizing, no cavity on imaging |
| Before removal | Sinogram if bowel fistula suspected; confirm no residual cavity |
Thoracentesis is listed separately from paracentesis in the ARRT® spec. Both are LOW bleeding risk but have distinct procedural details and complication profiles.
| Parameter | Value |
|---|---|
| Access level | 7th–9th intercostal space, mid-to-posterior axillary line |
| Entry landmark | Over superior rib margin (same rule as chest tube) |
| Maximum single drainage | 1,500 mL — exceeding this risks reexpansion pulmonary edema |
| Reexpansion pulmonary edema | Cough, dyspnea, frothy pink sputum → STOP drainage immediately |
The ARRT® spec explicitly tests tube exchange and removal as distinct procedures. IR techs must know criteria and technique for each tube type.
| Tube Type | Removal / Exchange Criteria | Key Rule |
|---|---|---|
| Nephrostomy | Nephrostogram confirms antegrade drainage; obstruction resolved | Pre-removal nephrostogram is mandatory — no exceptions |
| Biliary drain | Cholangiogram confirms flow to duodenum; planned stent placed | Never remove without confirming antegrade bile flow |
| Abscess drain | <10–15 mL/day; afebrile; WBC normalizing; no cavity on imaging | Sinogram before removal if bowel fistula suspected |
| Gastrostomy | Tract matured ≥10–14 days; feeding goals met | Dislodged before maturation = EMERGENCY — tract closes within hours |
| Chest tube | <200 mL/day serous output; lung expanded on CXR | Post-removal CXR confirms no pneumothorax |
Percutaneous radiologic gastrostomy (PRG) is the IR approach for long-term enteral access. It does not require endoscopy. Gastrojejunostomy (GJ) tubes are used when post-pyloric feeding is needed.
| Parameter | Detail |
|---|---|
| Prophylactic antibiotics | IV cefazolin 1g within 60 minutes of incision — mandatory |
| Tract maturation | 10–14 days — dislodgement before maturation is an emergency |
| T-fastener purpose | Temporarily appose stomach to abdominal wall — dissolve at 10–14 days |
| Tube verification | Water-soluble contrast (Gastrografin) through tube under fluoroscopy before feeds |
| Peritonitis sign | Pneumoperitoneum persisting >72h post-placement → suspect peritoneal leak |
The ARRT® spec explicitly includes “Closure Devices, Puncture Site Pressure, and Dressing” in the Focus of Questions for both Vascular Diagnostic and Vascular Interventional. Know the device types, mechanisms, and re-access rules.
| Device | Mechanism | Sheath Size | Re-access |
|---|---|---|---|
| Manual compression | Direct pressure over femoral head × 15–30 min; FemoStop device option | Any size | Immediate |
| Angioseal (Terumo) | Bioabsorbable intraluminal anchor + collagen plug; sandwiches arteriotomy | 6–8 Fr | 90 days (anchor resorbs) |
| Perclose ProGlide (Abbott) | Polypropylene suture through artery wall; no intraluminal material | 5–21 Fr | Immediate |
| StarClose (Abbott) | 4 mm nitinol clip; extravascular only | 5–6 Fr | Immediate |
| Mynx (Cardinal Health) | PEG hydrogel sealant delivered outside artery; resorbs in 30 days | 5–7 Fr | Immediate (no intraluminal) |
| Category | Questions | Weight |
|---|---|---|
| Patient Care | 22 | 14% |
| Image Production | 26 | 16% |
| Vascular Diagnostic | 41 | 26% |
| Vascular Interventional | 41 | 26% |
| Nonvascular | 30 | 19% |
| Total | 160 | 100% |
| Test | Normal | Threshold & Use |
|---|---|---|
| INR | 0.8–1.2 | <2.0 low-risk / <1.5 moderate & high-risk (SIR) |
| aPTT | 25–35 sec | 50–100 sec = therapeutic IV UFH |
| ACT | 70–120 sec | >200 sec = procedural anticoagulation (tableside) |
| Platelets | 150–400 K/µL | >50,000 required for all IR procedures |
| Creatinine | 0.6–1.2 mg/dL | Elevated → eGFR → CIN risk assessment |
| eGFR | >60 mL/min | <30 = high CIN risk → IOCM or CO₂ |
| K⁺ | 3.5–5.0 mEq/L | Correct if abnormal — arrhythmia risk with sedation |
| Severity | Key Signs | Treatment |
|---|---|---|
| Mild | Limited urticaria, flushing, nausea | Observe. Diphenhydramine 25–50mg PRN. |
| Moderate | Diffuse urticaria, mild bronchospasm | O₂, IV fluids, Benadryl 50mg IV. Epi IM if progressing. |
| Anaphylaxis | Bronchospasm, collapse, tachycardia | Epinephrine FIRST: 0.3mg IM (1:1,000) or 0.1mg IV (1:10,000) |
| Vasovagal | Bradycardia + hypotension | Legs up, fluids, O₂, Atropine 0.5–1mg IV. NOT epi. |
| CIN | Cr ↑ ≥0.3mg/dL in 48h | Pre-hydration NS, minimize contrast, IOCM, hold metformin |
| Drug | Use & Dose | Reversal |
|---|---|---|
| Heparin (UFH) | Procedural anticoag. ACT monitoring. | Protamine 1mg per 100U UFH |
| Alteplase (tPA) | CDT 0.5–1mg/hr via catheter | FFP/cryoprecipitate (no specific reversal) |
| Fentanyl | Opioid — 100× potency of morphine | Naloxone 0.4–2mg IV |
| Midazolam (Versed) | Benzo — anxiolysis/amnesia | Flumazenil 0.2mg IV (max 1mg) |
| Epinephrine | Anaphylaxis — 0.3mg IM (1:1,000) | N/A |
| Atropine | Vasovagal bradycardia — 0.5–1mg IV | N/A |
| Nitroglycerin | Arterial spasm — 100–200mcg IA | N/A |
| Methylprednisolone | Contrast premedication — 32mg PO ×2 | N/A |
| Parameter | Limit |
|---|---|
| Occupational whole body (annual) | 50 mSv/year (5 rem) |
| Occupational lens of eye | 150 mSv/year |
| Occupational extremity | 500 mSv/year |
| Declared pregnancy (total) | 5 mSv entire pregnancy |
| Patient reporting threshold | ≥5 Gy cumulative air kerma |
| DAP units | mGy·cm² |
| TLD advantage | Can be re-read; accurate integrated dose |
| Procedure | Access | Technical Goal | Key Complication |
|---|---|---|---|
| TIPS | Right IJV → hepatic vein → portal vein (transhepatic) | PSG <12 mmHg | Hepatic encephalopathy (25–35%) |
| IVC Filter | Right femoral or IJV. Infrarenal below lowest renal vein. | PE prevention (cavagram first) | Filter fracture, IVC thrombosis, perforation |
| Nephrostomy | Posterior lower pole calyx. Prone. US + fluoro. | Decompress obstructed system | Hemorrhage (most common), urosepsis |
| Biliary Drain (PTCD) | Transhepatic right lobe. Prophylactic Abx mandatory. | Decompress obstructed bile duct | Biliary sepsis (most dangerous) |
| Vertebroplasty | Transpedicular under fluoroscopy | Pain relief in VCF | PMMA cement leak → epidural or PE |
| TACE | CFA → hepatic artery → tumor feeder | Tumor devascularization + local chemo | Post-embolization syndrome (expected) |
| Y-90 | CFA → hepatic artery (after MAA shunt study) | Radiation delivery to tumor | Radiation pneumonitis if shunt >20% |
| Carotid Stenting (CAS) | CFA → aorta → carotid with distal EPD | Stent across stenosis with EPD deployed | Stroke/TIA from distal embolization |
| Tunneled HD Catheter | Right IJV preferred. Subcutaneous tunnel. | Tip at SVC-RA junction | Fibrin sheath, infection, thrombosis |
| Percutaneous Gastrostomy | Air insufflation + T-fastener gastropexy | Secure tube through gastropexied stomach | Peritonitis (pneumoperitoneum >48h) |
| Structure | Origin / Level | Key Clinical Fact |
|---|---|---|
| Celiac trunk | Anterior aorta at T12–L1 | Trifurcation: left gastric + splenic + common hepatic (~89%) |
| Replaced RHA | From SMA (10–15%) | Most common hepatic variant — must identify before TACE |
| Replaced LHA | From left gastric (~10%) | Second most common — runs in lesser omentum |
| Michels Type IX | Entire hepatic supply from SMA | No hepatic branches on celiac arteriogram — check SMA |
| SMA origin | Anterior aorta at L1 | Passes anterior to D3 (duodenum); arc of Riolan = SMA–IMA collateral |
| IVC formation | L4–L5 confluence of common iliac veins | Ascends RIGHT of aorta; passes through T8 caval hiatus |
| Duplicated IVC | Prevalence 0.2–3% | Bilateral filters OR suprarenal filter required |
| Left-sided IVC | Prevalence 0.2–0.5% | Joins left renal vein → crosses anterior to aorta → right suprarenal IVC |
| Circumaortic LRV | Prevalence 2.4–8.7% | Two left renal veins encircle aorta — alters filter placement zone |
| Portal vein | SMV + splenic vein posterior to pancreatic neck at L1–L2 | IMV drains into splenic vein (not portal confluence directly) |
| Left renal vein | Crosses anterior to aorta | Receives left gonadal + left adrenal + left phrenic veins |
| Right adrenal vein | 3–5mm — drains directly into IVC | Most challenging AVS catheterization; right IVC posterolateral wall |
| Aortic arch branches | Proximal to distal | 1. Brachiocephalic → 2. Left CCA → 3. Left subclavian |
| Vertebral arteries | From subclavian arteries bilaterally | Unite at pontomedullary junction → basilar artery; left dominant ~45% |
| CCA bifurcation | C3–C4 (upper thyroid cartilage) | ICA = posterior/lateral; ECA = anterior/medial; carotid body here |
| Anterior communicating artery | Between bilateral ACAs | Most common intracranial aneurysm site (~30–35%) |
| SFA → popliteal transition | Adductor (Hunter's) canal → adductor hiatus | Common SFA occlusion site due to repetitive flexion stress |
| Popliteal trifurcation | Lower popliteal fossa / proximal fibular head | AT → anterior; Tibioperoneal trunk → PT + peroneal |
| Uterine artery | Anterior division of internal iliac | 'Water under bridge' — crosses superior to ureter |
| Artery of Adamkiewicz | Left T8–L1 intercostal/lumbar (75%) | Dominant anterior spinal feeder — TEVAR coverage → spinal ischemia |
| Right IPA | Right inferior phrenic artery | Most common extrahepatic HCC feeder (hepatic dome, seg VII/VIII) |
| Internal iliac projections | 25° RAO → left IIA in profile; 25° LAO → right IIA in profile | Counterintuitive — contralateral oblique profiles each IIA |
| Procedure | SIR Risk | INR | Platelets | Key Rule |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Thoracentesis | Low | <3.0 | >20K | Max 1,500 mL/session; over superior rib margin; post-CXR mandatory |
| Paracentesis | Low | <3.0 | >20K | Albumin 6–8 g/L if >5 L removed; no INR correction required |
| Chest tube | Low | <3.0 | >20K | Over superior rib margin; 8–14 Fr Seldinger; post-CXR mandatory |
| Abscess drainage | Moderate | <1.5 | >50K | IV antibiotics BEFORE; >80% cure rate; untreated mortality 45–100% |
| Biopsy (lung, liver, renal) | Moderate | <1.5 | >50K | Lung: pneumothorax 20–35%; coaxial technique reduces tract seeding |
| Ureteral stent / dilatation | Moderate | <1.5 | >50K | Exchange every 3–6 months; antegrade if retrograde cystoscopy fails |
| Gastrostomy (PRG) | Moderate | <1.5 | >50K | Cefazolin 1g IV pre-procedure; T-fasteners; tract matures 10–14 days |
| Percutaneous nephrostomy (new) | High | <1.5 | >50K | Posterior lower pole calyx; Brödel’s line; prophylactic antibiotics |
| Biliary drain (new) | High | <1.5 | >50K | Antibiotics BEFORE no exceptions; right or left intrahepatic approach |
| Vertebroplasty / kyphoplasty | Moderate | <1.5 | >50K | Transpedicular approach; cement epidural leak → STOP + neuro check |
| Device | Type | Sheath Size | Re-access | Key Fact |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Manual compression | Gold standard | Any | Immediate | 15–30 min over femoral head; FemoStop device optional |
| Angioseal (Terumo) | Intraluminal anchor + collagen | 6–8 Fr | 90 days | Bioabsorbable anchor inside artery; no re-access 90 days |
| Perclose ProGlide (Abbott) | Suture-mediated | 5–21 Fr | Immediate | No intraluminal material; pre-close for EVAR (2 devices at 10+2 o’clock) |
| StarClose (Abbott) | Nitinol clip extravascular | 5–6 Fr only | Immediate | 4 mm clip; extraluminal only; cannot exceed 6 Fr |
| Mynx (Cardinal Health) | PEG hydrogel sealant | 5–7 Fr | Immediate | Fully extravascular; resorbs in 30 days |
| Topic | Key Rule | Source |
|---|---|---|
| NPO — Clear liquids | 2 hours minimum before procedure | ASA guidelines |
| NPO — Light meal | 6 hours minimum | ASA guidelines |
| NPO — Full meal | 8 hours minimum | ASA guidelines |
| Informed consent | Must be obtained BEFORE sedation; covers risks, benefits, alternatives, right to refuse | JCAHO |
| Emergent (implied) consent | Incapacitated patient + life-threatening emergency; document absence of surrogate | Legal standard |
| Universal time-out | Entire team together, immediately before procedure; patient ID + procedure + site confirmed | JC Universal Protocol |
| Allen test normal | Color returns to palm within 7 seconds after releasing ulnar artery | Standard technique |
| Barbeau Type D | SpO₂ waveform lost and does NOT recover → radial access CONTRAINDICATED | Barbeau 2001 |
| EtCO₂ normal | 35–45 mmHg; flat waveform = apnea (detects 30–90s before SpO₂ drops) | AANA standards |
| Controlled substance waste | Two qualified staff witness AND sign; physical waste immediately; no saving | DEA 21 CFR |
| Lead apron inspection | Visual each use; fluoroscopic/radiographic annually; never fold — always hang | NCRP / facility policy |
| Metformin + contrast | Hold 48h if eGFR <60 after contrast; resume when renal function confirmed stable | ACR guidelines |